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A 74-year-old African American man complains of urinary frequency over the last 2 months. He wakes up to use the bathroom several times during the night. He also complains of mild straining during urination. Over the last few weeks, he has had 2 episodes of bloody urine that cleared spontaneously. The patient otherwise considers himself in good health. He had right knee replacement for severe osteoarthritis 7 years ago. His father died of colon cancer. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history but quit 15 years ago. Rectal examination shows an enlarged and smooth prostate with no nodules, and normal rectal sphincter tone. Serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dl and prostate-specific antigen level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal <4 ng/ml). Urinalysis shows 0-1 white blood cells/hpf, 2-3 red blood cells/hpf, and trace protein. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?